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rstrats last won the day on August 16 2011

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About rstrats

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  1. Matthew 12:40

    That would be an issue for a different topic.
  2. Matthew 12:40

    I don't see any similarity. In your example I assume that everyone would understand that at least a portion of each one of 5 calendar days would be involved. But would anyone understand that no part of a 5th calendar day would be spent at the Falls?
  3. Matthew 12:40

    With the new year upon us maybe a further wording of the OP will make it more clear: 1. The Messiah said that three nights would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth". 2. There are some who believe that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week. 3. Of those, there are some who believe that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb. 4. However, those two beliefs allow for only 2 nights to be involved. 5. To account for the discrepancy, some of the above say that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language of the time, i.e., that it is was common to forecast or say that a day or a night would be involved with an event when no part of the day or no part of the night could occur. 6. In order for someone to legitimately say that it was common they would have to know of more that 1 example to make that assertion. I am simply wondering if anyone knows of examples to support the idea of commonality?
  4. Matthew 12:40

    But maybe someone new looking in will know of examples to support their belief that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.
  5. Matthew 12:40

    Invicta, re: "I don't need any examples I just need the bible." I realize that you don't need examples since you're not a believer in a 6th day of the week crucifixion. re: "But you can give them if you wish." I wish I could, but so far no one has provided any.
  6. Matthew 12:40

  7. Matthew 12:40

    Since it has again been awhile, someone new looking in who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, and who tries to get around Matthew 12:40 by saying that it is using common Jewish idiomatic/figure of speech/colloquial language may know of some writing as requested in the OP.
  8. Matthew 12:40

  9. Matthew 12:40

    Maybe someone new looking in might know of examples.
  10. Matthew 12:40

  11. Matthew 12:40

  12. Matthew 12:40

    Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutey doesn't/can't include at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?