LindaR

*Independent Fundamental Baptist
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About LindaR

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  • Birthday 05/03/1943

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  • Gender Female
  • Are you IFB? Yes

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  1. The Tithe, for the Church or not?

    What Are The Three Tithes? What Is The Storehouse and the First Fruits?  (Ron Robey) Discussion on the three tithes, the storehouse, and the first fruits.  NOTE: Biblical tithes never were, and never will be monetary.  Biblical tithes are defined in Leviticus 27:30-33 and Deuteronomy 14:22-29.  Tithes and first fruits are not the same. (Nehemiah 10:37-38)  The storehouse is not the church house.
  2. Does God allow alcohol?

    We have always finished eating all the grapes we buy.  There are always some over-ripe and rotten (fermented) grapes in the bunch and I just toss them out. Yeast is destroyed at about 140-160 degrees F....so the yeast was destroyed before the juice concentrate was put in the freezer.  We were not trying to "ferment" the grapes when we tried to make the wine.  We accomplished that which we set out to do.  Make unfermented wine (or grape juice).  Using seal a meal bags is a far cry from putting the concentrate into old wineskins.  There is no comparison.  If you have never tried to make wine, then how do you know that what I am saying is foolishness? Leviticus 10:8 And the LORD spake unto Aaron, saying, Leviticus 10:9 Do not drink wine nor strong drink, thou, nor thy sons with thee, when ye go into the tabernacle of the congregation, lest ye die: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations: Leviticus 10:10 And that ye may put difference between holy and unholy, and between unclean and clean; Leviticus 10:11 And that ye may teach the children of Israel all the statutes which the LORD hath spoken unto them by the hand of Moses.
  3. Does God allow alcohol?

    If you had read the article from the link I posted you would have your answer. 4. The making of alcoholic beverages is not a strictly natural process. Years ago I took for granted that if you took the juice of a grape and let it alone, not refrigerating it, it would automatically, in time, turn into alcoholic wine. There are several reasons why this is not true. It takes more than time to make wine. Sometimes people try to defend its use by saying that it must be good because God made it. But, the fact is, God did not make it. Man has learned how to make alcoholic liquors through processes that he has invented. Wine-makers know that one must have the correct amount of water, sugar, and temperature to make wine. Keeping grape juice in a refrigerator would prevent it from fermenting, because the temperature is not right. Likewise, hot, tropical temperature would prevent fermentation. In ancient days, before we had refrigeration and vacuum-sealing ability, people learned to preserve the juice of the grape without turning it into alcoholic wine. Many people boiled it down into thick syrup. By doing so, they could preserve it for long periods of time. When they got ready to drink it, they would simply add the water to the consistency desired, in much the same way that we take frozen concentrates and add water. In Bible days, contrary to what many believe, it was not necessary for everyone to drink alcoholic wine as a table beverage. I recommend the book entitled Bible Wines and the Laws of Fermentation by William Patton (Challenge Press, Emmaus, PA). More than a hundred years ago, this preacher was the only one in his town who believed in total abstinence. He saw that it was necessary to make an extensive study to see what scripture taught. This book is the result of that labor and is the very best thing I have read on the subject. [Editor: Natural processes alone will produce fermentation under certain conditions, but these natural processes, if unaided by man, rapidly move to a vinegar state. The alcoholic beverages industry is very much a man-made thing.] http://www.wayoflife.org/database/did_jesus_make_alcoholic_wine.html Ron and I tried making our own non-alcoholic wine from fresh seedless red grapes in 2007.  We squeezed the grapes in a juicer and then boiled them.  We then filtered out the "lees" and sealed them in a couple of gallon-sized "seal a meal" bags so they were air tight.  We then froze what we made.  Since alcohol does not freeze, we left those 2 gallon-sized in the freezer for 2 years.  They froze solid which means there was NO alcohol in those freshly squeezed grapes.  When thawed after 2 years, that concentrate was extremely sweet....but there was not a trace of "ferment"/alcohol in either bag.
  4. Does God allow alcohol?

    Isaiah 16 is not speaking of judgment on Israel.  The context is God's judgment on MOAB.  It is verse 10, not 8 which was quoted.  Isaiah 16:10 And gladness is taken away, and joy out of the plentiful field; and in the vineyards there shall be no singing, neither shall there be shouting: the treaders shall tread out no wine in their presses; I have made their vintage shouting to cease. All you folks are doing is trying to justify the believer's drinking of alcoholic beverages.....just don't get drunk....right?  Drunkenness/intoxication begins with the first drink of beverage alcohol.
  5. Does God allow alcohol?

     It is quite obvious that the wine which was used in Bible times was totally different than the wine which is manufactured today.  Things that are different (Bible wine/today’s wine) are not the same.  What about CONTEXT???    In your zeal to interpret every instance of the word wine in Scripture as fermented, it is apparent that you are overlooking CONTEXT and the modern usage of the word wine. BTW, I am not using any "Greek (or Hebrew) guessicons".  SOME INTRODUCTORY BIBLE FACTS ABOUT WINE: 1. The word wine in the Bible is a generic term; sometimes it means grape juice; sometimes it means alcoholic beverages. The following verses prove that the word “wine” can mean fresh grape juice, the fruit of the vine: De. 11:14; 2 Ch. 31:5; Ne. 13:15; Pr. 3:10; Is. 16:10; 65:8; 1 Ti. 5:23. 2. The context will always show when “wine” refers to alcoholic beverages. In such cases, God discusses the bad effects of it and warns against it. An example would be Gen. 9, Noah’s experience after the Flood. Verse 21, “and he drank of the wine, and was drunken,” clearly refers to alcoholic beverage. Prov. 20:1 speaks of the same thing when it warns us, “Wine is a mocker, strong drink is raging; and whosoever is deceived thereby is not wise.” Alcoholic wine is deceptive; but how? In the very way that people are advocating today, by saying that drinking a little bit will not hurt. Everyone admits that drinking too much is bad; even the liquor companies tell us not to drive and drink, but they insist that a small amount is all right. However, that is the very thing that is deceptive. Who knows how little to drink? Experts tell us that each person is different. It takes an ounce to affect one, while more is necessary for another. The same person will react to alcohol differently, depending on the amount of food he has had, among other things. So, the idea that “a little bit won’t hurt” is deceptive, and whosoever is deceived thereby is not wise! Prov. 23:30-31 refers to alcoholic wine, because it tells us in the previous verse that those who drink it have woe, sorrow, contentions, babbling, wounds without cause, and redness of eyes. What a graphic description of those who “tarry long” at alcoholism. Verses 32-35 continue the same description; context always makes it clear when alcohol is meant.  (From the link I posted)    
  6. Does God allow alcohol?

    Did Jesus Make Alcoholic Wine?
  7. Conclusion to my post on other thread

    I was raised in Reform (Liberal) Judaism.  My grandparents were Orthodox Jewish immigrants from Russia.  They immigrated to the USA during the late 1890s or early 1900s.  We (my brother, sister and I) were brought up in a Roman Catholic neighborhood in Cleveland, Ohio and were called Christ killers during our growing up years.  We lived about 2 blocks from a Jesuit RC seminary (John Carroll University).    As far as my "education" on water baptism, the pastor used Romans 6 as an explanation of the meaning of this church ordinance.  If you are using 1 Cor. 1:22 as a proof text for the Jews requiring a "sign", what does that have to do with believer's baptism?
  8. Conclusion to my post on other thread

    I am a born again Jew.  I was saved 9 months before I was baptized.  I never "demanded" a sign.  Believer's baptism was explained to me before my pastor would baptize me.  The Scripture teaches (and I was taught) that baptism does not save and that baptism is one of the two ordinances of the church....the Lord's Supper being the other ordinance.  Believer's baptism is an outward profession of faith that has already taken place in the believer's heart.  It is a picture of our "identification" with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. 
  9. Jewish days and creation

    "a M.A.R.S. call from R.O.K. @ 3:00AM on Tues"?????
  10. IP Blocked: Need help

    First of all, the statement wasn't addressed to you, Jim.  It was addressed to BroMatt and the administrators/designers of this website. Ronda is a good friend of mine and we communicate frequently on Facebook.  She asked me if I was having a problem getting on this forum and I said I wasn't and the forum wasn't  down for some technical reason.  A few years ago our IP was blocked because of an "overload" of editing and the "bot" caught it as spamming.  I contacted the website administrators via Facebook, and they resolved the problem.  I told Ronda to do the same and she asked me to use that "Contact Us" option at the bottom of each page on this forum.  I did that and neither I, nor Ronda received a response via email. BTW, I do know something about blocked IPs...and I also know that every forum has a "bot" that is supposed to catch spammers.  I also have been a moderator on several internet forums I am attempting to help a friend get back on this forum and I thought starting a thread in the Computer Room would be a start, since I'm not having any luck anywhere else I've tried.
  11. IP Blocked: Need help

    BroMatt and OnlineBaptist website administrators/designers: I'm posting this on behalf of another poster, Ronda.  Her IP has been locked out of the OnlineBaptist forum for one week, as of Thursday, December 24, 2015.  I sent a message to the website administration notifying them of this problem on Saturday, December 26, 2015.  I sent this notification through the "Contact Us" at the bottom of each forum page.  As of this date, neither Ronda nor I have received a response.  Ronda would appreciate if someone would email her and let her know that you are aware of this problem and that you will be working on a resolution. Thank you LindaR
  12. The Widow's Mites

    The Scriptures were written in Koine Greek (NT) and Hebrew (OT)...not in English.   God promised to preserve His Word long before the English language came into existence (Psalms 12:6-7).  The King James Bible is the PRESERVED, inerrant and inspired Word of God in the English language, which was translated from the PRESERVED, inerrant and inspired original Greek and Hebrew, neither of which is a dead language.  Neither does the English "correct" the Greek (or Hebrew), as some teach.  The 360 "perversions" of which you speak were not translated from the same Greek and Hebrew manuscripts as the King James Bible. The English language didn't exist until the fifth to the seventh century AD.   English is a West Germanic language that originated from Anglo-Frisian dialects brought to Britain in the fifth to seventh centuries by Germanic invaders and settlers from what is now northwest Germany and the Netherlands. (Wikipedia).  Quit with the insults already....the more you insult, the more you show your ignorance about Bible translations.
  13. The Widow's Mites

    From what language did the KJV translators translate the Bible into English?  There is nothing wrong with going to the source to find the meanings of words.  It doesn't mean that someone doesn't like what the Bible says when one goes to a Greek dictionary in order to find the meanings of words. 
  14. The Widow's Mites

    If she was receiving financial care, then why would she be in possession of only two mites? She may have acquired those two mites through begging for alms.  The fact that she was poor shows that she had been reduced to a begging status.  Had she been receiving financial care, it would not have been necessary for her to beg for a living.