Romans 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. So, the "all men" who receive the free gift unto justification unto life = believers. Well then who does the judgment to condemnation apply to? Well, since "all men" = believers, it must be believers too...right? So only believers were condemned to judgment. I guess God was just playing a trick on us...threatening us believers with judgment, because we can't be judged to condemnation since believers aren't condemned. At least that lets people who were/are never saved off the hook...whew! You know what? Let's just bring this to where the rubber meets the road. This only applies to men and not women, right? After all, it says "all men". In fact, it only applies to Roman men, right? After all, Paul was writing to the Romans. To all who may read this, I thank you for allowing me to participate in Online Baptist, but I believe that it's time for me to say goodbye. I just don't have it in me any longer. I wish you all well. Keep pressing toward the mark (Philippians 3:14). Respectfully in Christ, No Nicolaitans
I could answer you here Leonard, but to be honest...I'm tired of the constant back-and-forth here on Online Baptist about Calvinism. Sometimes, it subsides for a while, but it doesn't take long before it rears its head again. Same arguments, same responses, same results...it never ends. I've had my fill.
John, I'll be the first to admit that there are still things in the Bible that are confusing and hard to be understood. Though I don't subscribe to Calvinism, and though I don't see a dilemma, I can see the possible dilemma when one considers "many" vs. "all". We often forget that our beloved Bible was written hundreds of years ago. What did "many" mean when the King James was written? "Many" isn't listed in the 1604 dictionary that I sometimes consult; the closest to the date of the King James that I could find was from 1768. In it, the adjective "many" is defined as... Constituting a great number; numerous. Marking number indefinite. Also, in the same dictionary, the adjective "all" is defined as... The whole number; every one. The whole quantity; every part. So, as a "marking number", the word "many" is indefinite. Wouldn't this indefinite number be "all"? Now, look at our modern-day definition of "many"... Constituting a great number; numerous. Noting each one of a large number (usually followed by a or an). Very similar, but see what has been left off? "Marking number indefinite" is now gone...in 200+ years, an important part of its definition has disappeared and has been replaced with a definition that makes it definitive rather than indefinite. Who did Christ die for? He died for indefinite many...he died for all.
Matthew 20:28 Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many. 1 Timothy 2:6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
From what I recall in history...working from memory here...I would probably agree with what you've said above. With that said, do you believe that the "abomination that maketh desolate" of Daniel 11:31 and "the abomination that maketh desolate" of Daniel 12:11 are the same event?