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Preservation and the KJV

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On ‎4‎/‎30‎/‎2017 at 10:29 PM, DaveW said:

Is there ANY English version which is a perfect version of the Word of God available to us today?

This is a question which requires a simple answer - a Yes or no will do, but I would ask that if you say Yes, you provide a simple statement which nominates which version is the perfect version of the Word of God in English available to us today.

ONCE YOU HAVE done so, you may then outline the reasons all you like, but for my part I need to know this information from you.

 

Brother Tyndale,

I believe that it is very important for you to answer Brother DaveW's question above.  Most of those who have engaged with you in this thread believe that you are seeking to undercut the divine authority of the King James translation for English speaking people.  Until you provide a clear answer to Brother DaveW's question that belief will continue.

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How do you define perfect? "wilt" occurs 245 times in 208 verses in the KJV, I haven't looked in the other old translations. It has no source word in Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek, how does adding words make English translations perfect? How is adding the word "wilt" safe according to Revelation 22:18? Remember for the older English translations all the translators are dead and the Revelation plagues have yet to appear. I'm not asking this to kick the KJV, or any of the older translations, I'm asking because I want to grow my knowledge of the word. 

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7 hours ago, MountainChristian said:

How do you define perfect? "wilt" occurs 245 times in 208 verses in the KJV, I haven't looked in the other old translations. It has no source word in Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek, how does adding words make English translations perfect? How is adding the word "wilt" safe according to Revelation 22:18? Remember for the older English translations all the translators are dead and the Revelation plagues have yet to appear. I'm not asking this to kick the KJV, or any of the older translations, I'm asking because I want to grow my knowledge of the word. 

Brother Ken,

In English grammar the English verb changes verb tenses, voices, and moods by changing verb endings and by adding helping verbs, such as -- "am, is, are, was, were, be, being, been, have, has, had, do, does, did, should, could, would, will (wilt), shall, can, may, might, must."  However, in both Hebrew and Greek we do not find such a use of separate "helping" verbs.  Rather, in Hebrew and Greek the verb tenses, voices, and moods are developed simply through changing verb forms and endings.  As such, that which English grammar accomplishes with "helping" verbs Hebrew and Greek builds right into the change of verb forms and endings themselves.  Even so, the use of these "helping" verbs in an English translation actually DOES find its source in the Hebrew and Greek, not as individual "helping" verbs, but as that which is grammatically built into the individual Hebrew or Greek verb form and ending.  The given Hebrew or Greek verb, including its particular form and ending, IS the source word for the English verb and its helping verb.

Edited by Pastor Scott Markle

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15 minutes ago, Pastor Scott Markle said:

Brother Ken,

In English grammar the English verb changes verb tenses, voices, and moods by changing verb endings and by adding helping verbs, such as -- "am, is, are, was, were, be, being, been, have, has, had, do, does, did, should, could, would, will (wilt), shall, can, may, might, must."  However, in both Hebrew and Greek we do not find such a use of separate "helping" verbs.  Rather, in Hebrew and Greek the verb tenses, voices, and moods are developed simply through changing verb forms and endings.  As such, that which English grammar accomplishes with "helping" verbs Hebrew and Greek builds right into the change of verb forms and endings themselves.  Even so, the use of these "helping" verbs in an English translation actually DOES find their source in the Hebrew and Greek, not as individual "helping" verbs, but as that which is grammatically built into the individual Hebrew or Greek verb form and ending.  The given Hebrew or Greek verb, including its particular form and ending, IS the source word for the English verb and its helping verb.

Glad you pointed this out to clarify.

Here is an example.

the spanish word Hablar means to talk.

when you put O at the end of the word it means "I talk"

So Hablo means "I talk".

It's one Spanish word but translates exactly to two words in English. It's not that you are adding words.

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On ‎5‎/‎6‎/‎2017 at 9:53 PM, MountainChristian said:

Thank you Brothers, this gives me a great peace of mind. 

By the way, in both Hebrew and Greek pronouns can also be built right into the change in form or ending of a Hebrew or Greek word (for both verbs and nouns).

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